Hannibal wrote:tnf wrote:
However, I still think you are missing one of my main points - how do we rationalize our behaviors? If we are telling Hitler to fuck a goat for the reasons you mention (not requiring any moral absolutism), what is it about our actions that make them inherently right and Hitler's inherently wrong (if there is no infallible yardstick.) I think the infallible yardstick exists.
I don't think we have really gone anywhere in this discussion - except to maybe explain each other's position a bit better.
From my viewpoint, clarifying positions constitutes progress. :icon31:
I don't think I'm missing anything, just making a choice about what to cover. Your comments suggest that you believe in some version of 'moral realism' (the use of 'inherently'). This view is one I find a bit difficult to get my head around since (one version of it) seems to require the existence of observer-independent 'moral' facts as a component of human (social) action. I just haven't seen any good arguments for it, though I'm happy to be educated if you have a particular thinker, theory, or book in mind. I'll be back later...gotta go.
I know I've mentioned the book before, but I'll that I've really done here is echo a bit of the argument made by C.S. Lewis in the beginnig of "Mere Christianity" - the first section of the book is not about Christianity at all - it simply makes a case for moral law, or a law of nature. My goal is not to turn this into a debate on Christianity and its merits or shortcomings, so please don't take my suggestion of reading that book as some sort of overt gesture to shove Christianity towards you. I think we can all agree that Lewis was a fairly bright individual. He makes the case for a Moral Law much better than I can - and you don't even have to read the part about Christianity...he begins the book with the Moral Law part. Also, read his book "The Problem of Pain" for a similar bit. Both are quick reads. I'm simply interested in the philosphical idea of an absolute moral law, and find both books touch on it well.
I didn't mean to suggest you missed the point of the discussion, but I don't see a real answer to my question yet (or at least one that satisfied me - or maybe one that is in simple enough terms for an idiot like myself to understand...)
It is an extremely simple question, really - doesn't the instinct (or intuition as you mention) for people to act, and judge the actions of others, according to a certain set of behaviors imply the existance of the 'moral realism' that I have been getting at here (whatever its beginnigs may be - an emergent property that applies to populations and is the result of evolution, etc..)
If I walk out on to the street, beat up a kid and take his bike, we would all agree that is wrong. Why? Judging by what I've read thus far, I think I can say that people here would say "because you know by intuition, instinct, whatever, that it just IS wrong." Or, as Rook mentioned, because it is not something you'd want to have done to you. Why do we have that intuition or instinct? What about that intuition or instinct makes it inherently right? Why is it not just as 'right' to do adhere to a set of morals that says it is just fine to beat the kid up and take his bike? If there isn't an infallible yardstick, can't every decision be rationalized as being 'good'?
I think every one of us knows that we just 'know' what the right thing to do in many cases is. We also know that what is right and what is preferential to us often may be in conflict. Would you agree with that?